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[主观题]

●Managing risk and documenting them is very important in project planning process. You are

in the process of defining key risks, including constraints and assumptions, and planned responses and contingencies. These details will be included in the (73).

(73)A. project management plan

B. project baseline

C. risk response plan

D. risk baseline

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更多“●Managing risk and documenting them is very important in project planning process. You are”相关的问题

第1题

(b) Using the TARA framework, construct four possible strategies for managing the risk pre

(b) Using the TARA framework, construct four possible strategies for managing the risk presented by Product 2.

Your answer should describe each strategy and explain how each might be applied in the case.

(10 marks)

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第2题

Which of the following is a situation where dual (redundant) HMCs are recommended?()

A.When managing more than four VIO servers.

B.When installed with Power 570 and larger hardware.

C.When hosting both Linux and AIX on the same physical hardware.

D.When unexpected outage on a single HMC would prove an untenable risk for the hosted LPARs.

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第3题

Which of the following statements is (are) true? I. To ensure higher effectiveness in managing operational risk, the operational risk manager’s compensation should be linked to trader performance. II. Stoploss limits are less effective as an operational risk measure than exposure limits, because exposure limits consider future market risk movements, while stoploss limits are backward looking. III. As annual audits of listed entities are regulatory and mandatory by nature, they should not be seen as a material part of operational risk management. IV. The long option like feature of most traders’ compensation packages substantially increases operational risk.()

A.I, III, and IV

B.II and IV

C.II only

D.IV only

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第4题

The Seattle Times Company is one newspaper firm that has recognizedthe need for change and

The Seattle Times Company is one newspaper firm that has recognized

the need for change and done something about it. In the newspaper industry,

papers must reflect the diversity of the communities to which they provide

information. It must reflect that diversity with their news coverage 【S1】______

or risk losing their readers' interest and their advertisers' support.

Operating within Seattle, which has 20 percents racial 【S2】______

minorities, the paper has put into place policies and

procedures for hiring and maintain a diverse workforce. The 【S3】______

underlying reason for the change is that for information to b

fair, appropriate, and subjective, it should be reported by the 【S4】______.

same kind of population that reads it.

A diversity committee composed of reporters, editors, and

photographers meets regularly to value the Seattle Times' 【S5】______.

content and to educate the rest of the newsroom staff about

diversity issues. In an addition, the paper instituted a content 【S6】______.

audit (审查) that evaluates the frequency and manner of

representation of woman and people of color in photographs. 【S7】______

Early audits showed that minorities were pictured far too

Infrequently and were pictured with a disproportion number

of negative articles. The audit results from 【S8】______.

improvement in the frequency of majority representation and 【S9】______.

their portrayal in neutral or positive situations. And, with a 【S10】______.

result, the Seattle Times has improved as a newspaper. The diversity

training and content audits helped the Seattle Times Company to win

the Personnel Journal Optimal Award for excellence in managing change.

【S1】

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第5题

How much does Baker expect to earn in profits on her first arbitrage play (in dollars per contract, ignoring

Susan Baker is a new hire at Crinson Bank’s Chicago office. She has joined the risk arbitrage desk where she will be training to take advantage of price discrepancies in the U.S. T-note futures and spot markets.

Her managing director, Gerald Bigelow, has asked her to calculate parameters for potential arbitrage opportunities for the bank given current market conditions. At the time he asked the question, the cheapest-to-deliver T-notes were at par, with a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. When trading futures, the risk arbitrage desk borrows at 12 percent and lends at 4 percent.

Looking at the calendar, Baker calculates that there are 184 days to the first coupon payment and 181 days from the first coupon payment to the second. Any interest accrued will be paid when the T-note is delivered against the futures contract, but Bigelow asks Baker not to concern herself in the calculations with the impact of reinvesting the coupons or with transaction costs.

To get a feel for the market, Baker first prices a 6-month futures contract that has 184 days to expiration in a “simplified scenario.” She decides to use the same interest rate for borrowing and lending, taking the average of the bank’s borrowing and lending rates. Calculating the futures price under these simplified assumptions, Baker tells Bigelow that the futures contract should trade at 99.7059. Bigelow explains that the futures price is below par even though the spot price is at par because of the benefit to a short seller of receiving the T-note coupon payments.

Having calculated the futures price in the “simplified scenario,” Baker modifies it to reflect the bank’s current borrowing and lending rates, and calculates the corresponding no-arbitrage bands. She tells Bigelow that the lower band will be at 97.7468. Bigelow checks her calculations, confirming that the higher band will be at 101.6294.

Once they know the no-arbitrage bands for current market conditions, Baker and Bigelow check the screen. They see that the market price of the futures contract for which they’ve been calculating no-arbitrage bands is 103. Together, they execute Baker’s first arbitrage play.

Part 5)

How much does Baker expect to earn in profits on her first arbitrage play (in dollars per contract, ignoring transaction costs and any reinvestment of coupon payments)?

A)$523,000.

B)$1,371.

C)$40,003.

D)$370.

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第6题

If the T-notes that Baker priced in the “simplified scenario” were not the cheapest to deliver, and the

Susan Baker is a new hire at Crinson Bank’s Chicago office. She has joined the risk arbitrage desk where she will be training to take advantage of price discrepancies in the U.S. T-note futures and spot markets.

Her managing director, Gerald Bigelow, has asked her to calculate parameters for potential arbitrage opportunities for the bank given current market conditions. At the time he asked the question, the cheapest-to-deliver T-notes were at par, with a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. When trading futures, the risk arbitrage desk borrows at 12 percent and lends at 4 percent.

Looking at the calendar, Baker calculates that there are 184 days to the first coupon payment and 181 days from the first coupon payment to the second. Any interest accrued will be paid when the T-note is delivered against the futures contract, but Bigelow asks Baker not to concern herself in the calculations with the impact of reinvesting the coupons or with transaction costs.

To get a feel for the market, Baker first prices a 6-month futures contract that has 184 days to expiration in a “simplified scenario.” She decides to use the same interest rate for borrowing and lending, taking the average of the bank’s borrowing and lending rates. Calculating the futures price under these simplified assumptions, Baker tells Bigelow that the futures contract should trade at 99.7059. Bigelow explains that the futures price is below par even though the spot price is at par because of the benefit to a short seller of receiving the T-note coupon payments.

Having calculated the futures price in the “simplified scenario,” Baker modifies it to reflect the bank’s current borrowing and lending rates, and calculates the corresponding no-arbitrage bands. She tells Bigelow that the lower band will be at 97.7468. Bigelow checks her calculations, confirming that the higher band will be at 101.6294.

Once they know the no-arbitrage bands for current market conditions, Baker and Bigelow check the screen. They see that the market price of the futures contract for which they’ve been calculating no-arbitrage bands is 103. Together, they execute Baker’s first arbitrage play.

Part 4)

If the T-notes that Baker priced in the “simplified scenario” were not the cheapest to deliver, and the cheapest-to-deliver note had a conversion factor of 1.07, what would be the no-arbitrage futures price?

A)106.6853.

B)137.6041.

C)93.1831.

D)98.6359.

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第7题

If the bank enters an arbitrage play involving the cheapest-to-deliver Treasury bond, which of the following

Susan Baker is a new hire at Crinson Bank’s Chicago office. She has joined the risk arbitrage desk where she will be training to take advantage of price discrepancies in the U.S. T-note futures and spot markets.

Her managing director, Gerald Bigelow, has asked her to calculate parameters for potential arbitrage opportunities for the bank given current market conditions. At the time he asked the question, the cheapest-to-deliver T-notes were at par, with a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. When trading futures, the risk arbitrage desk borrows at 12 percent and lends at 4 percent.

Looking at the calendar, Baker calculates that there are 184 days to the first coupon payment and 181 days from the first coupon payment to the second. Any interest accrued will be paid when the T-note is delivered against the futures contract, but Bigelow asks Baker not to concern herself in the calculations with the impact of reinvesting the coupons or with transaction costs.

To get a feel for the market, Baker first prices a 6-month futures contract that has 184 days to expiration in a “simplified scenario.” She decides to use the same interest rate for borrowing and lending, taking the average of the bank’s borrowing and lending rates. Calculating the futures price under these simplified assumptions, Baker tells Bigelow that the futures contract should trade at 99.7059. Bigelow explains that the futures price is below par even though the spot price is at par because of the benefit to a short seller of receiving the T-note coupon payments.

Having calculated the futures price in the “simplified scenario,” Baker modifies it to reflect the bank’s current borrowing and lending rates, and calculates the corresponding no-arbitrage bands. She tells Bigelow that the lower band will be at 97.7468. Bigelow checks her calculations, confirming that the higher band will be at 101.6294.

Once they know the no-arbitrage bands for current market conditions, Baker and Bigelow check the screen. They see that the market price of the futures contract for which they’ve been calculating no-arbitrage bands is 103. Together, they execute Baker’s first arbitrage play.

Part 6)

If the bank enters an arbitrage play involving the cheapest-to-deliver Treasury bond, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A)The short position decides which bond to deliver.

B)The arbitrage play is no longer risk-free if the bank has a long position in the cheapest-to-deliver bond.

C)The long position has the advantage in the arbitrage play.

D)The cheapest-to-deliver bond may change during the life of the contract.

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第8题

Regarding Baker’s and Bigelow’s statements about the no-arbitrage bands, which is CORRECT?

Susan Baker is a new hire at Crinson Bank’s Chicago office. She has joined the risk arbitrage desk where she will be training to take advantage of price discrepancies in the U.S. T-note futures and spot markets.

Her managing director, Gerald Bigelow, has asked her to calculate parameters for potential arbitrage opportunities for the bank given current market conditions. At the time he asked the question, the cheapest-to-deliver T-notes were at par, with a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. When trading futures, the risk arbitrage desk borrows at 12 percent and lends at 4 percent.

Looking at the calendar, Baker calculates that there are 184 days to the first coupon payment and 181 days from the first coupon payment to the second. Any interest accrued will be paid when the T-note is delivered against the futures contract, but Bigelow asks Baker not to concern herself in the calculations with the impact of reinvesting the coupons or with transaction costs.

To get a feel for the market, Baker first prices a 6-month futures contract that has 184 days to expiration in a “simplified scenario.” She decides to use the same interest rate for borrowing and lending, taking the average of the bank’s borrowing and lending rates. Calculating the futures price under these simplified assumptions, Baker tells Bigelow that the futures contract should trade at 99.7059. Bigelow explains that the futures price is below par even though the spot price is at par because of the benefit to a short seller of receiving the T-note coupon payments.

Having calculated the futures price in the “simplified scenario,” Baker modifies it to reflect the bank’s current borrowing and lending rates, and calculates the corresponding no-arbitrage bands. She tells Bigelow that the lower band will be at 97.7468. Bigelow checks her calculations, confirming that the higher band will be at 101.6294.

Once they know the no-arbitrage bands for current market conditions, Baker and Bigelow check the screen. They see that the market price of the futures contract for which they’ve been calculating no-arbitrage bands is 103. Together, they execute Baker’s first arbitrage play.

Part 3)

Regarding Baker’s and Bigelow’s statements about the no-arbitrage bands, which is CORRECT?

A)Baker’s statement is correct and Bigelow’s statement is incorrect.

B)Baker’s statement is incorrect and Bigelow’s statement is incorrect.

C)Baker’s statement is correct and Bigelow’s statement is correct.

D)Baker’s statement is incorrect and Bigelow’s statement is correct.

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第9题

Regarding Baker’s and Bigelow’s statements about the futures price in the simplified scenario:

Susan Baker is a new hire at Crinson Bank’s Chicago office. She has joined the risk arbitrage desk where she will be training to take advantage of price discrepancies in the U.S. T-note futures and spot markets.

Her managing director, Gerald Bigelow, has asked her to calculate parameters for potential arbitrage opportunities for the bank given current market conditions. At the time he asked the question, the cheapest-to-deliver T-notes were at par, with a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. When trading futures, the risk arbitrage desk borrows at 12 percent and lends at 4 percent.

Looking at the calendar, Baker calculates that there are 184 days to the first coupon payment and 181 days from the first coupon payment to the second. Any interest accrued will be paid when the T-note is delivered against the futures contract, but Bigelow asks Baker not to concern herself in the calculations with the impact of reinvesting the coupons or with transaction costs.

To get a feel for the market, Baker first prices a 6-month futures contract that has 184 days to expiration in a “simplified scenario.” She decides to use the same interest rate for borrowing and lending, taking the average of the bank’s borrowing and lending rates. Calculating the futures price under these simplified assumptions, Baker tells Bigelow that the futures contract should trade at 99.7059. Bigelow explains that the futures price is below par even though the spot price is at par because of the benefit to a short seller of receiving the T-note coupon payments.

Having calculated the futures price in the “simplified scenario,” Baker modifies it to reflect the bank’s current borrowing and lending rates, and calculates the corresponding no-arbitrage bands. She tells Bigelow that the lower band will be at 97.7468. Bigelow checks her calculations, confirming that the higher band will be at 101.6294.

Once they know the no-arbitrage bands for current market conditions, Baker and Bigelow check the screen. They see that the market price of the futures contract for which they’ve been calculating no-arbitrage bands is 103. Together, they execute Baker’s first arbitrage play.

Part 1)

Regarding Baker’s and Bigelow’s statements about the futures price in the simplified scenario:

A)Baker’s statement is correct and Bigelow’s statement is correct.

B)Baker’s statement is incorrect and Bigelow’s statement is correct.

C)Baker’s statement is incorrect and Bigelow’s statement is incorrect.

D)Baker’s statement is correct and Bigelow’s statement is incorrect.

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第10题

Which of the following most accurately describes the arbitrage strategy that Baker and Bigelow executed?

Susan Baker is a new hire at Crinson Bank’s Chicago office. She has joined the risk arbitrage desk where she will be training to take advantage of price discrepancies in the U.S. T-note futures and spot markets.

Her managing director, Gerald Bigelow, has asked her to calculate parameters for potential arbitrage opportunities for the bank given current market conditions. At the time he asked the question, the cheapest-to-deliver T-notes were at par, with a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. When trading futures, the risk arbitrage desk borrows at 12 percent and lends at 4 percent.

Looking at the calendar, Baker calculates that there are 184 days to the first coupon payment and 181 days from the first coupon payment to the second. Any interest accrued will be paid when the T-note is delivered against the futures contract, but Bigelow asks Baker not to concern herself in the calculations with the impact of reinvesting the coupons or with transaction costs.

To get a feel for the market, Baker first prices a 6-month futures contract that has 184 days to expiration in a “simplified scenario.” She decides to use the same interest rate for borrowing and lending, taking the average of the bank’s borrowing and lending rates. Calculating the futures price under these simplified assumptions, Baker tells Bigelow that the futures contract should trade at 99.7059. Bigelow explains that the futures price is below par even though the spot price is at par because of the benefit to a short seller of receiving the T-note coupon payments.

Having calculated the futures price in the “simplified scenario,” Baker modifies it to reflect the bank’s current borrowing and lending rates, and calculates the corresponding no-arbitrage bands. She tells Bigelow that the lower band will be at 97.7468. Bigelow checks her calculations, confirming that the higher band will be at 101.6294.

Once they know the no-arbitrage bands for current market conditions, Baker and Bigelow check the screen. They see that the market price of the futures contract for which they’ve been calculating no-arbitrage bands is 103. Together, they execute Baker’s first arbitrage play.

Part 2)

Which of the following most accurately describes the arbitrage strategy that Baker and Bigelow executed?

A)Sell futures contract, use proceeds to buy asset, borrow difference, sell asset, buy back futures, and collect difference between finance charges and interest from asset.

B)Borrow funds, buy spot asset, buy futures, deliver asset against long futures, and repay loan and finance charges.

C)Borrow funds, buy spot asset, sell futures, collect accrued interest on spot asset, deliver asset against short futures, and repay loan with interest.

D)Short spot asset, lend proceeds from short sale, buy futures contract, collect principal and interest on loan, pay interest on short asset, take delivery of asset against futures, and replace short asset.

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